Daily Current Affairs MCQ 27 September 2026

Q1. Which of the following rivers of Jharkhand flows completely independently into the Bay of Bengal without merging into any other river system?

Q2. The historic Hundru Falls, dropping from an elevation of approximately 320 feet (98 metres), is situated on which river?

Q3. The famous Dassam (Da-song) Falls near Bundu-Tamar in Ranchi district is formed by which river?

Q4. In indigenous tribal medicine of Jharkhand, what does the term ‘Hodo-pathy’ signify?

Q5. The tragic Gajlitand Colliery disaster in Dhanbad district, caused by flood waters of the Katri river entering the underground seam, occurred on:

Q6. According to the 2011 Census, what is the exact percentage of Scheduled Tribes in the total population of Jharkhand?

Q7. In the 81-member Jharkhand Legislative Assembly, how many constituencies are reserved for Scheduled Tribes?

Q8. Out of the 14 Lok Sabha constituencies in Jharkhand, how many are reserved for Scheduled Tribes (ST)?

Q9. In the State Tourism Performance Framework 2025 published by the Ministry of Tourism, what was Jharkhand’s rank among 36 States/UTs?

Q10. Getalsud Dam is situated on which river basin in Jharkhand?

Q11. The North Urimari opencast mine, planned as the pilot location for Coal Mining Tourism by JTDC and CCL, is located in which district?

Q12. The historic terracotta village ‘Maluti’, known as ‘Gupt Kashi’, is situated in which district of Jharkhand?

Q13. In which year was the Chhotanagpur Tenancy (CNT) Act enacted by the British administration?

Q14. The Santhal Parganas Tenancy (Supplementary Provisions) Act was enacted in which year?

Q15. Lodh Falls (Burha Ghagh), the highest waterfall in Jharkhand with a fall height of ~469 feet, is located on which river?

Q16. The Birsa Munda Airport at Hinoo, Ranchi was named after the legendary tribal freedom leader. What was the venue where Birsa Munda passed away in British custody in 1900?

Q17. The famous ‘Chinnamastika’ temple at Rajrappa is situated at the sangam (confluence) of which two rivers?

Q18. The ‘Career Advancement Scheme’ (CAS) evaluated in recent Jharkhand High Court service jurisprudence is regulated under the norms of which statutory apex regulator?

Q19. Under the Revamped Distribution Sector Scheme (RDSS) implemented in Jharkhand, what is the target ceiling for Aggregate Technical & Commercial (AT&C) losses by 2030?

Q20. In Jharkhand’s mining geography, Chiria in West Singhbhum is known for possessing one of Asia’s largest single deposits of:

Q21. The Jharkhand Mukti Morcha (JMM) was founded on which historic day in 1973 at the Golf Ground in Dhanbad?

Q22. Which plateau in Jharkhand is famously known as the ‘Queen of Chhotanagpur’ (Chhotanagpur ki Rani)?

Q23. Which tree is venerated as the central sacred element during the Sarhul festival of tribal Jharkhand?

Q24. In the Jharkhand administrative hierarchy, which official acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the District Disaster Management Authority (DDMA)?

Q25. Heavy Engineering Corporation (HEC), situated at Hatia, Ranchi, was set up in 1958 with technical and financial collaboration from which foreign entities?

Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners (ECs):

1. Under Article 324, the President appoints the CEC and other Election Commissioners subject to any law made by Parliament.
2. An Election Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q27. The term ‘Conscientious Objector’ protected under Article 25 of the Constitution of India applies to individuals who:

Q28. In the Pahalgam Declaration context, which constitutional principle prevents retroactive cancellation of completed democratic elections?

Q29. With reference to the Delimitation Commission in India, consider the following statements:

1. Orders issued by the Delimitation Commission have the full force of law and cannot be questioned in any court of law.
2. The orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies, but no modifications are permissible by the legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q30. Which constitutional amendment act introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council under Article 279A?

Q31. The Right of Reply in the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) is governed under which provision of the UNGA Rules of Procedure?

Q32. In the context of judicial administration, an ‘Inquest Proceeding’ under Section 194 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) is conducted primarily to:

Q33. Which of the following writs is issued by a High Court or Supreme Court to quash an order passed by an inferior court or tribunal without jurisdiction?

Q34. The ‘SEED’ Scheme (Scheme for Economic Empowerment of DNTs) launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment specifically targets:

Q35. What is the minimum strength of a High Court Bench required to decide on a substantial question of law involving the interpretation of the Constitution?

Q36. The ‘Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana’ (PMMVY) operates under which overarching mission framework?

Q37. Which constitutional amendment act introduced the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) as a constitutional body under Article 338B?

Q38. Under the Constitution of India, the power to extend or restrict the jurisdiction of a High Court over a Union Territory belongs to:

Q39. Section 21 of the POCSO Act, 2012 deals specifically with punishment for:

Q40. The ‘Doctrine of Pith and Substance’ is invoked by courts in India to determine:

Q41. Who is the administrative head of the District Disaster Management Authority (DDMA) under the Disaster Management Act, 2005?

Q42. Which constitutional provision prohibits employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories, mines, or other hazardous occupations?

Q43. The President of India can grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment under which Article of the Constitution?

Q44. What constitutes the ‘Panna Pramukh’ model in Indian election grassroots campaigning?

Q45. The ‘Equal Opportunity Cell’ (EOC) in universities is mandated to protect students from discrimination primarily based on guidelines of:

Q46. What is the constitutional significance of Article 324(1) regarding the superintendence, direction, and control of elections?

Q47. Under the Indian Constitution, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha can vacate his/her office by writing under his/her hand addressed to:

Q48. Which Article of the Constitution gives the Supreme Court original jurisdiction in any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States?

Q49. Which of the following constitutional provisions directs the State to secure a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) for the citizens throughout India?

Q50. The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), which releases the annual ‘Accidental Deaths & Suicides in India’ (ADSI) report, functions under which Ministry?

Q51. What is the Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) in digital transaction processing?

Q52. In macroeconomic terminology, a ‘K-shaped Recovery’ describes an economic scenario where:

Q53. Which index serves as the statutory nominal anchor for the Reserve Bank of India’s flexible inflation-targeting framework?

Q54. What is a ‘Global Capability Centre’ (GCC)?

Q55. In the context of capital restructuring, what distinguishes an ‘Offer for Sale’ (OFS) from a ‘Fresh Issue’ in an Initial Public Offering (IPO)?

Q56. What does a ‘Put-Call Ratio’ (PCR) exceeding 1.0 typically indicate in options market sentiment?

Q57. Which agency releases the monthly ‘All-India Consumer Price Index’ (CPI) data in India?

Q58. In public finance, what is ‘Primary Deficit’?

Q59. The ‘Better Cotton Initiative’ (BCI) operates globally to achieve which primary objective?

Q60. Which Indian agricultural institution flagged that annual vegetable and fruit additions stagnated at ~7.6 MT between 2015 and 2025?

Q61. What does the term ‘Gross Fixed Capital Formation’ (GFCF) measure in national accounts?

Q62. Under SEBI regulations, an Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) Category I focuses on:

Q63. Which organization acts as the central counterparty for clearing and settlement of trades in government securities and money markets in India?

Q64. What is a ‘Sovereign Green Bond’?

Q65. In the context of balance of payments, what constitutes ‘Net Foreign Direct Investment’ (Net FDI)?

Q66. Which international organisation publishes the ‘Global Financial Stability Report’?

Q67. What is ‘Base Erosion and Profit Shifting’ (BEPS) in international taxation?

Q68. Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016, what is the maximum statutory timeline for completing the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP)?

Q69. The ‘Lead Bank Scheme’ was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India in 1969 based on the recommendations of:

Q70. In macroeconomics, ‘Twin Deficits’ refer to the simultaneous coexistence of:

Q71. What is an ‘Anchor Investor’ in an Initial Public Offering (IPO) in India?

Q72. In international finance, what is the ‘Special Drawing Right’ (SDR)?

Q73. What is ‘Micro-Prudential Regulation’ in central banking supervision?

Q74. The ‘Gini Coefficient’ is widely used by economists as an empirical measure of:

Q75. What is ‘Sterilization’ by a Central Bank in foreign exchange operations?

Q76. With reference to the ‘Hallmarks of Ageing’ published in scientific literature (López-Otín et al.), consider the following statements:

1. Telomere attrition and epigenetic alterations are primary cellular damage hallmarks.
2. Cellular organs in the human body age at identical linear biological rates throughout an individual’s life.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q77. What is ‘Project Suncatcher’, recently initiated by global technology researchers?

Q78. In the field of pharmacology, ‘Rapamycin’ is primarily recognized as:

Q79. Which parameter is considered the single most reliable diagnostic indicator of visceral and metabolic risk beyond body weight?

Q80. In medical science, ‘MASLD’ stands for:

Q81. The ‘United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea’ (UNCLOS) defines ‘Territorial Sea’ as extending up to what distance from the baseline?

Q82. Which international climate treaty created the legally binding mechanism known as ‘Nationally Determined Contributions’ (NDCs)?

Q83. What is ‘Microalgae-based Carbon Capture’?

Q84. What is ‘Quantum Cryptography’ (Quantum Key Distribution – QKD)?

Q85. In global environmental agreements, the ‘Minamata Convention’ is targeted at eliminating the emissions and releases of:

Q86. In which year did the historic ‘Stockholm Conference on Human Environment’ take place, laying the foundation for modern global environmental law?

Q87. The Indus Waters Treaty (1960) allocates the waters of which three Eastern Rivers for unrestricted use by India?

Q88. Which atmospheric layer reflects radio waves back to Earth, making long-distance radio communication possible?

Q89. What is the primary cause of ‘Ocean Acidification’?

Q90. Which of the following is considered an in-situ method of biodiversity conservation?

Q91. In autonomous robotics and assisted driving systems, ‘LiDAR’ stands for:

Q92. The ‘Montreux Record’ under the Ramsar Convention is a register of:

Q93. Which of the following is a primary greenhouse gas with the highest Global Warming Potential (GWP) over a 100-year time horizon?

Q94. The ‘Kyoto Protocol’ mechanism that allows industrialized countries to invest in emission-reduction projects in developing countries is called:

Q95. In modern power electronics, why are ‘Semi-Cryogenic’ rocket engines preferred over pure cryogenic engines for booster stages?

Q96. What is ‘Epigenetics’ in modern genomics?

Q97. The ‘Basel Convention’ deals with the control of transboundary movements of:

Q98. Which layer of the atmosphere contains the protective Ozone Layer that absorbs lethal solar ultraviolet-B radiation?

Q99. What is a ‘Bio-fertilizer’?

Q100. In which year was the Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC), India’s first multipurpose river valley project, established through an Act of the Constituent Assembly?