Daily Current Affairs MCQ 26 September 2026

This analytical test series covers contemporary governance, regional developments across Jharkhand, constitutional law, foreign policy, and critical macro-economic indicators reported on September 26, 2026. Every question follows the multi-statement format aligned with the latest analytical trends of UPSC Civil Services and State PCS examinations. Click on “View Answer & Analytical Notes” under each question to toggle the detailed explanation.

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• 🔹 1. Jharkhand Special & Regional (Q1–Q20)
• 🔹 2. Indian Polity & Governance (Q21–Q40)
• 🔹 3. Economy & Banking Policy (Q41–Q60)
• 🔹 4. Environment, Ecology & Geog (Q61–Q75)
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Q1. With reference to the newly notified ‘VB-G RAM G Scheme’ (Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rojgar and Aajeevika Mission – Gramin) in Jharkhand, consider the following statements:

1. It legally guarantees 125 days of wage employment in a financial year to every rural adult willing to do unskilled manual work.
2. The scheme is fully 100% funded by the State Government of Jharkhand.
3. If employment is not provided within 15 days of application, the applicant is entitled to an unemployment allowance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the air cargo infrastructure expansion at Birsa Munda Airport, Ranchi:

1. The cargo terminal at Ranchi airport was officially inaugurated in January 2017.
2. Air India SATS has projected handling an annual air cargo volume of 20,000 metric tonnes by the year 2027.
3. A major agricultural milestone recorded was the direct export of Amrapali mangoes from a Simdega Women FPO to the United Kingdom.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q3. Which of the following dams and associated river basins in Jharkhand recently reached near-maximum capacity due to Cyclone Arnab and active Bay of Bengal low-pressure systems?

1. Getalsud Dam – Subarnarekha River
2. Kanke (Gonda) Dam – Potpoto River
3. Tilaiya Dam – Barakar River
4. Patratu Dam – Nalkari River

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q4. In the context of public administrative justice in Jharkhand, the High Court recently quashed an order dismissing 2006-batch Class IV employees of the Jharkhand Armed Police (JAP). On what legal ground was the State’s plea dismissed?

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the 72nd Wildlife Week 2026 Walkathon organised in Ranchi:

1. It was organised by the Department of Forest, Environment, and Climate Change, Government of Jharkhand.
2. The walkathon covered a distance of 10 kilometres starting from Forest Bhawan, Doranda.
3. The core themes highlighted included “Save Forest, Save Wildlife, Save Earth, Save Human”.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q6. Under the Central Equipment Identity Register (CEIR) operation (‘Operation Muskan’) conducted by the Jharkhand Police, which district registered the highest number of recovered mobile phones?

Q7. The National University of Study and Research in Law (NUSRL), Ranchi, established under Act No. 4 of the Jharkhand State Assembly, offers 1-year PG Diploma programmes. Which of the following is NOT among the specialized diploma courses offered?

Q8. Recently, the National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS) granted approval for Diplomat of National Board (DNB) post-graduate medical seats in the Pathology department of which district hospital in Jharkhand?

Q9. With reference to the historic tribal uprising and colonial land policy in Jharkhand, Umar Khalid’s academic work ‘Fractured Communities: Adivasi Histories and the Politics of Power’ primarily focuses on which region?

Q10. At the 20th Asian Games (Aichi-Nagoya 2026), Indian shooter Aishwary Pratap Singh Tomar, along with Rudrankksh Patil and Niraj Kumar, clinched the Silver medal in which event?

Q11. The Jharkhand government recently approved upgrading 100 Community Health Centres (CHCs) to high-grade hospitals. What is the approximate additional requirement of medical doctors estimated for this restructuring?

Q12. What was the core legal point involved in the Supreme Court’s refusal to stay the PMLA trial against suspended Jharkhand cadre IAS officer Pooja Singhal?

Q13. In the 2026 Asian Games athletics events, Indian distance runner Gulveer Singh secured the Silver medal in the Men’s 10,000m race with a timing of:

Q14. Who became the first Indian female athlete in history to win an Asian Games medal in the Women’s Pole Vault event?

Q15. Consider the following pairs of rivers and projects in Jharkhand/Bihar in news recently:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q16. Under the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, and its 2025 Rules, what institutional mandate was directed for Jharkhand Government departments during the recent state-level workshop?

Q17. The Jharkhand Academic Council (JAC) announced before the High Court that the Jharkhand Teacher Eligibility Test (JTET), which had not been held since 2016, will officially be conducted on:

Q18. The proposed 4-lane Greenfield/Brownfield Configuration Road project under Land Acquisition Act 30/2013, highlighted in recent district notifications, directly connects which two key industrial hubs in Ramgarh and Ranchi districts?

Q19. Under the Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act (COTPA) and Jharkhand’s state amendments, what is the legally defined buffer zone around educational institutions where the sale of all tobacco products is strictly prohibited?

Q20. Dr. Akhilesh Kumar Singh, who recently passed away, was a pioneering academic figure in Jharkhand primarily associated with which scientific discipline?

Q21. With reference to the institutional hierarchy and decision-making within the Election Commission of India (ECI), consider the following statements:

1. Under the T.N. Seshan v. Union of India (1995) judgment, the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and the Election Commissioners enjoy equal status and voting power.
2. Under Section 18 of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners Act, 2023, if there is a difference of opinion, matters must be decided by majority vote.
3. The Chief Election Commissioner possesses absolute constitutional power to unilaterally overrule the written dissents of both Election Commissioners.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q22. Consider the following statutory forms under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960:

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q23. In the constitutional split-verdict rendered by a two-judge bench of the Supreme Court on petitions challenging the Chief Election Commissioner Act, 2023, what was the primary question referred to the Chief Justice of India?

Q24. Which constitutional provision was recently invoked by the Supreme Court to order the extraordinary re-induction of a Short Service Commissioned (SSC) Indian Air Force war widow?

Q25. With reference to Article 254 of the Constitution of India, why did the Union Government raise legal objections regarding West Bengal’s ‘Anti-Goonda’ Bill?

Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the Jammu & Kashmir Legislative Assembly’s recent resolution on Statehood:

1. The resolution moved by the Chief Minister explicitly referenced the 2000 Autonomy Resolution and the November 2024 Special Status Resolution.
2. Under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of J&K was created with a Legislative Assembly modeled after Puducherry under Article 239A.
3. Police and Public Order in the UT of Jammu & Kashmir currently rest under the direct executive control of the Lieutenant Governor.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q27. The Uttarakhand High Court recently upheld the constitutional validity of a 50% reservation quota for women in student union elections across universities. Which constitutional provision serves as the primary bedrock for such affirmative action?

Q28. With reference to the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA), 1958, consider the following statements:

1. Section 3 of AFSPA empowers both the Central Government and the Governor of the State to declare an area as a ‘disturbed area’.
2. Personnel operating under AFSPA have statutory immunity under Section 6 from prosecution without prior Central sanction.
3. In the latest September 2026 notification, AFSPA has been extended across the entirety of Manipur, Nagaland, and Arunachal Pradesh without any geographic exclusion.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q29. With respect to the regulation of lotteries and gambling in India, consider the following constitutional and statutory provisions:

1. Lotteries organised by the Government of India or the Government of a State fall under Entry 40 of the Union List (List I).
2. Betting and gambling generally fall under Entry 34 of the State List (List II).
3. In B.R. Enterprises v. State of U.P. (1999), the Supreme Court ruled that lotteries constitute res extra commercium (outside the protection of Article 19(1)(g) and Article 301).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q30. Under Section 32 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, which category of acts is punishable as a cognisable offence?

Q31. Consider the following statements regarding the office of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) under Article 324(5) of the Constitution:

1. The CEC cannot be removed from office except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. The conditions of service of the CEC cannot be varied to their disadvantage after appointment.
3. Other Election Commissioners can be removed by the President at will without any recommendation from the CEC.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q32. In the 2027 Census enumeration methodology, what controversial feature was notified by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India for Phase-2 (Population Enumeration)?

Q33. With reference to the Cauvery Water Management Authority (CWMA) and the Cauvery Water Regulation Committee (CWRC), consider the following statements:

1. They were constituted by the Central Government under Section 6A of the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956.
2. The Biligundlu gauging station acts as the designated inter-state common border observation point between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
3. Decisions of the CWMA are purely non-binding recommendations that require prior state cabinet approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q34. The doctrine of ‘Continuing Mandamus’ was recently referenced by the Andhra Pradesh High Court while hearing matters related to the Amaravati capital region. What does ‘Continuing Mandamus’ mean?

Q35. Consider the following statements regarding the 15th Finance Commission grants to local bodies:

1. Grants released by the Union Ministry of Finance must be transferred by the State Government to Gram Panchayats within 10 working days.
2. States that fail to transfer local body grants within the stipulated period are required to pay interest to the local bodies.
3. Gram Panchayats are mandated to record and upload receipt details onto the e-Gram Swaraj portal.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q36. With reference to the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009, consider the following statements:

1. Section 27 of the RTE Act explicitly prohibits deploying school teachers for non-educational duties, except for decennial census, disaster relief, and local/state/parliamentary elections.
2. Deploying teachers for continuous Special Intensive Revision (SIR) duties falls under the exempt exceptions permitted by Section 27.
3. The National Advisory Council on Elementary Education is a statutory body under the RTE Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q37. The ‘ASDD list’ frequently used by election officials during electoral roll revision stands for:

Q38. Who among the following is empowered to order a trial by court martial or make preventive detention orders under the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958?

Q39. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which statutory authority is empowered to conduct investigations into misleading advertisements and impose financial penalties on e-commerce platforms?

Q40. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012, defines a child as any person below the age of:

Q41. With reference to Bilateral Investment Treaties (BITs) in India, consider the following statements:

1. India unilaterally terminated BITs with more than 50 trading partners following the adoption of its 2016 Model BIT.
2. The 2016 Model BIT mandated that foreign investors must exhaust domestic legal remedies for five years before initiating international arbitration.
3. Under the updated Model BIT currently under Cabinet review, sovereign tax measures are expressly proposed to be included within international arbitration.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q42. Regarding the Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) on UPI transactions, consider the following statements:

1. An MDR of 0.4% will be applicable on person-to-merchant (P2M) UPI transactions above ₹2,000 from October 15, 2026.
2. The MDR is capped at a maximum of ₹300 for transactions of ₹75,000 or above.
3. MDR collected forms part of the Consolidated Fund of India as direct tax revenue.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q43. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently fixed the Ways and Means Advances (WMA) limit for the Central Government for the second half (H2) of FY 2026-27 at:

Q44. What was the primary macroeconomic reason cited by the RBI for the recent contraction of India’s foreign exchange reserves by $14.9 billion to $765.9 billion in mid-September 2026?

Q45. Consider the following statements regarding the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India’s (IRDAI) proposed distribution reforms:

1. It proposes distinct, lower commission caps for corporate distributors (banks/bancassurance) compared to individual agents.
2. It seeks to introduce commission clawbacks and restrict compulsory bundling of insurance with retail loans.
3. It raises first-year motor insurance agent commissions up to 50%.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q46. Under SEBI’s newly approved ‘PRIM’ framework, what does the acronym stand for in the context of Portfolio Management Services (PMS)?

Q47. India’s Department of Economic Affairs and Commerce Ministry have flagged the ‘Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism’ (CBAM) as a non-tariff trade barrier. CBAM has been instituted by which entity?

Q48. In which Indian state was the largest single-location Greenfield e-Methanol plant (150 TPD capacity) launched via a joint venture between Assam Petro-Chemicals Limited (APCL) and Deendayal Port Authority?

Q49. With reference to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) equity inflows into India during Q1 FY 2026-27, which country emerged as the largest source of investment?

Q50. Under the Atal Pension Yojana (APY), what is the age criterion for eligibility to join the scheme?

Q51. The Ministry of Power is considering mandating thermal power stations to blend what percentage of imported coal with domestic supplies to meet critical fuel shortages?

Q52. The National Stock Exchange (NSE) made its historic trading debut on which stock exchange?

Q53. Why did the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) withdraw its proposed ₹6,000 crore 3-year bond issuance?

Q54. Consider the following statements regarding Trade Margin Rationalisation (TMR) in India’s medical device sector:

1. TMR seeks to cap the margin between the procurement/landed cost and the Maximum Retail Price (MRP) charged to patients.
2. The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) regulates prices of both scheduled drugs and non-scheduled medical devices.
3. For non-scheduled medical devices, manufacturers are permitted to increase the MRP by up to 25% annually.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q55. Why has the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) recently de-listed 15 Pre-Shipment Inspection Agencies (PSIAs)?

Q56. What key institutional mechanism has the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) put in place regarding personal guarantors to corporate debtors?

Q57. India’s tea production and shipments saw a decline between January and July 2026. What was the primary driver behind this output squeeze?

Q58. With reference to the SARFAESI Act, 2002, consider the following statements:

1. Under Section 13(2), a secured creditor issues a demand notice requiring the borrower to discharge liabilities within 60 days.
2. Under Section 13(4), the bank may take symbolic or physical possession of the secured asset upon default.
3. Agricultural land is fully amenable to attachment and auction under the provisions of the SARFAESI Act.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q59. The newly launched Digital Connectivity Rating (DCR) platform by TRAI evaluates properties based on:

Q60. According to research cited by Nomura and JLL, why is India emerging as a highly competitive global hub for AI data centre construction?

Q61. What scientific distinction separates a ‘Super El Niño’ from a standard El Niño event?

Q62. The Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary, known for successfully rejuvenating native grasslands and expanding the Indian Gaur population, is situated in which state?

Q63. Consider the following classical Indian texts on elephant management and veterinary science (Gaja-Sastra):

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q64. In the context of the Western Ghats Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) notification, why did the Kerala Government recommend restricting ESAs to 8,590.69 sq. km?

Q65. Rimbi village, which recently suffered massive destruction from slope failure and landslides altering the river course, is located in which district?

Q66. Which multi-lateral climate initiative was proposed by Nepal’s Prime Minister at the UN General Assembly to address cascading disaster risks across the Himalayas?

Q67. Consider the following statements regarding the Subansiri Upper Hydroelectric Project (SUHEP):

1. It is a 1,800 MW run-of-the-river project planned on the Subansiri River in Arunachal Pradesh.
2. Because Arunachal Pradesh has high forest cover, its compensatory afforestation obligations are proposed across degraded lands in Madhya Pradesh.
3. The Subansiri River is the largest tributary of the Brahmaputra River.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q68. Under the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently permitted the port-adjacent storage of which new chemicals?

Q69. What ecological phenomenon explains why sudden heavy rainfall in high-altitude glaciated basins causes destructive ‘mountain tsunamis’?

Q70. In the field of biodiversity conservation, the term ‘Flagship Species’ refers to:

Q71. Which of the following invasive alien weed species is/are actively targeted for manual eradication in Indian wildlife sanctuaries to regenerate native foraging meadows?

1. Lantana camara
2. Ageratum conyzoides
3. Eupatorium odoratum
4. Hyptis suaveolens

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q72. In the 2026 UN Climate discourse, the international fund created to financially compensate vulnerable low-emission nations for irreversible climate damage is named:

Q73. The Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) climate scientist Dr. Roxy Mathew Koll was recently named for which prestigious American Geophysical Union (AGU) award?

Q74. Under the Delhi Electric Vehicle Policy 2026, which of the following milestones has been legally notified?

1. From 1 January 2027, registration of new L-5 auto-rickshaws and N-1 light goods vehicles is restricted exclusively to electric vehicles.
2. From 1 April 2028, all new two-wheeler registrations will be restricted to electric vehicles.
3. It sets a target to develop over 30,000 public EV charging points by 2030.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q75. The ‘Namo Drone Didi’ scheme is implemented by the Government of India primarily to:

Q76. With reference to Google’s ‘Project Suncatcher’, what is the primary objective of the space mission scheduled for launch?

Q77. Researchers at the Raman Research Institute (RRI), Bengaluru, recently revealed a cosmic mechanism by which supermassive black holes affect galaxies. What is this mechanism?

Q78. In the field of oncology and patent rights in India, Ribociclib and Abemaciclib are targeted therapeutics specifically prescribed for which cancer?

Q79. Which mathematical domain represents the core contribution of Professor Sarah Peluse, who was awarded the SASTRA-Ramanujan Prize?

Q80. Researchers at IIT Delhi recently engineered an indigenous programmable micro-GPU. What is the current hardware implementation platform of this micro-chip?

Q81. What distinguishes ‘nicotine pouches’, currently subject to an official Union Health Ministry crackdown, from traditional tobacco products?

Q82. In public health administration, the national helpline number ‘1930’ is designated for:

Q83. Consider the following statements regarding the Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan (SUMAN) initiative:

1. It aims to assure dignified, respectful, and quality healthcare at zero cost for every woman and newborn visiting a public healthcare facility.
2. It seeks to achieve zero preventable maternal and newborn deaths.
3. Karnataka’s SUMAN Roadmap 2030 aims to bring the Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) below 70 per 100,000 live births.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q84. India is piloting the BRICS Network of Centres of Excellence (CoE) in Mental Health. Which apex institution acts as the coordinating node?

Q85. In ophthalmic surgery, what condition is treated via ‘Corneal Transplantation’ (Keratoplasty)?

Q86. In clinical medicine, Japanese Encephalitis (JE) is a viral zoonotic infection transmitted to humans through the bite of:

Q87. What is ‘Front-of-Pack Labelling’ (FOPL) as regulated by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)?

Q88. Which technology giant merged its consumer and enterprise ‘Copilot’ AI assistants to pivot away from standalone consumer chatbots towards corporate productivity automation?

Q89. On the sidelines of the 81st UN General Assembly, India and Liberia jointly launched which maritime multilateral initiative?

Q90. Under the ‘7-day plan’ submitted by Iranian Foreign Minister Abbas Araghchi during UNGA sidelines, what was the primary condition put forth for reopening the Strait of Hormuz?

Q91. Which choke-point connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea, serving as the transit route for roughly one-fifth of the world’s petroleum?

Q92. In international diplomacy, what does the term ‘Thucydides Trap’, recently invoked during US-China discussions, signify?

Q93. The Mecca Joint Defence Agreement, which triggered urgent joint chiefs of staff consultations in Riyadh, involves which three countries?

Q94. Indian Coast Guard Ship (ICGS) Shaunak recently departed Chennai on a voyage to Perth, Australia, as part of which multilateral mission?

Q95. Consider the following statements regarding the multinational air combat exercise ‘Tarang Shakti’:

1. It is hosted by the Indian Air Force (IAF).
2. The French Air and Space Force deployed Rafale F4 fighters and A330 MRTT multi-role tanker transport aircraft to Jodhpur under Mission Pégase 26.
3. It is held exclusively among member countries of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q96. With reference to the core tenets of India’s Nuclear Doctrine operationalized in 2003, consider the following statements:

1. India adheres to a declared ‘No First Use’ (NFU) posture against nuclear-weapon states.
2. Nuclear weapons will not be used against non-nuclear weapon states.
3. India retains the option of nuclear retaliation in the event of a major biological or chemical attack on India or Indian forces anywhere.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q97. In recent bilateral talks between India and France, what nuclear technology was discussed for deployment in India under the upcoming SHANTI Act framework?

Q98. In the 46th Chess Olympiad held at Samarkand (Uzbekistan), World Champion D. Gukesh led the Indian men’s team to a 2.5–1.5 victory in Round 9 against which team?

Q99. Under the newly enacted Lindsey Graham Sanctioning Russia Act of 2026 passed by the US Congress, what power was authorized to the US President?

Q100. With reference to the historic 1991 economic reforms in India, who served as the Principal Secretary to Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao, steering the administrative blueprint of industrial delicensing and economic liberalisation?